Thursday, December 31, 2020

Bidding Question

Hi Heidi,

We were N/S and got this hand yesterday:

E/W vulnerable, W is dealer:

North
♠A852
9862
KJ7
♣Q3
West
♠T73
743
8
♣AJT985
East
♠K9
KQJ
Q96532
♣72
South
♠QJ64
AT5
AT4
♣K64

Most other table East opened with 1, but at our table, East passed the first round then came in at the second round with 2:
N E S W
Pass
Pass Pass 1♣ Pass
1 2 ???

Question: What should South bid??

Heidi's Answer


Excellent question! South should PASS.

Don't let the Opponents force you into making bids you do not want to make.

Remember South has NO IDEA that North has a strong hand. North could have only 6 points.

South has no fit for North's major so can't support that.

Bidding 2NT shows a strong hand with 18 or 19 HCP.

Bidding 2♠ is a reverse showing a strong hand.

So South can happily PASS knowing that IF North has a strong hand (10+ HCP) they WILL bid again.

West will "Pass".

What will North do?

What they SHOULD do is DOUBLE.

This is NOT a Penalty Double. This is just a Value Showing Double. North is saying "Hey I have some high cards over here and I don't know what to do!"

South can't mess this up.

If they bid either 2 or 2♠ or 2NT North will "Pass" and they will take eight tricks.

If South Passes the Value Showing Double then East is playing in 2 Doubled.

N/S can take at least 6 tricks and if they defend well will take 7 tricks. That's down 1 or hopefully 2.

If you can get down 2 doubled this is much better than making 2♠.

However I think with the South hand South will probably bid 2NT. They might be worried that their aren't good enough or long enough to sit for a Double.

North will "Pass" 2NT since they are maximum for the values they have shown.

Tuesday, December 29, 2020

Hand 11 - 1NT vs 1 Major

This is chapter 11 in the story of my attempt to determine if it is better to open 1♠ or 1NT with 15 to 17 HCP and a five card ♠ suit.

The journey started with this post:
Later On

Here is the eleventh hand I generated:

North
♠T2
KJ864
Q9
♣A876
West
♠654
5
JT432
♣JT43
East
♠QJ3
Q972
A65
♣Q95
South
♠AK987
AT3
K87
♣K2

Dealer is South and no one is vulnerable.

Double Dummy:
5NT can make by N
5♠ can make by N/S
5 can make by N/S
4NT can make by S


Analysis

If South opens up 1NT I think North will transfer to and bid 3NT. South will bid 4 since they have a fit.

What happens if South opens 1♠?

This depends on the system N/S are playing -- 2/1 Game Forcing or Standard American.

If they are playing Standard American North will bid 2 to show 10+ HCP and five or more .

South will bid game since they have a fit and extras.

Same result.

What about if N/S are playing 2/1 Game Forcing?

Now North will be forced to say 1NT which is a forcing bid in this system.

South will bid 2NT to show a good 17, 18, 19.

Can North show a five card suit right now?

Would 3 be a transfer?

Unclear. What is 3 in this auction?

Since I'm not 100% confident in what my partnership has agreed I decided that you wouldn't be either.

In any case, if your partnership can show the five card major the partnership will get to 4. If they can't the partnership will get to 3NT.

However in THIS auction NORTH gets to play 3NT. North does better in 3NT than either North or South would in 4.

If North bids the NT and East is on lead they might even lead a if North didn't show their suit!

So I'm going to say it is definately close but it is better for South to open 1♠. You will probably end up in the same spot but you might end up playing the NT from the better side.

To see the table where all the hands are listed click HERE!

Sunday, December 27, 2020

Bidding Question

Hi Heidi,

We came across a few hands that we don't know how to bid today:

NS vulnerable, N is dealer:

North
♠Q762
KQJ

♣KQJ542
West
♠943
AT32
KQ96
♣83
East
♠8
986
85432
♣T976
South
♠AKJT5
754
AJT7
♣A

N E S W
1♣ Pass 1♠ Pass
???

Question: What do you suggest North bid to have the partnership explore slam?

Heidi's Answer


North just needs to show their hand. They shouldn't be exploring slam. That's what South should be doing.

Here North has support for South's ♠ suit. They can show support and also show their point count. Since they are Dummy they get Dummy points. That's 5 points for their void. Together with 14 HCP that's enough for a game. They can bid 4♠.

This is NOT a Shut Down bid telling your Partner to STOP BIDDING. Shut Down bids only occur when Partner is limited. Here South is NOT limited in their point count. They could have 6 points, they could have 13 points, they could have 20 points! North does not know.

So North just shows South they have the equivalent of about 20 points. North should let South take it from there.

Here South with 17 HCP will certainly bid again! They will probably try Blackwood and find out they are missing an Ace so will stop in 6♠.

Is it perfect bidding?

No. You are not supposed to bid Blackwood with a useless doubleton. But unless you can cuebid you are pretty much stuck on that hand. Besides Partner must have something for their leap to game.

Even if North bids only 3♠ showing 17 or 18 points, South still has enough to investigate slam by bidding Blackwood.

Tuesday, December 22, 2020

Bidding Question

Hi Heidi,

We came across a few hands that we don't know how to bid today:

EW vulnerable, N is dealer:

North
♠AT832
754
J653
♣K
West
♠74
KJ
QT742
♣J753
East
♠QJ5
AT832
98
♣864
South
♠K96
Q96
AK
♣AQT94

N E S W
Pass Pass 1♣ Pass
1♠ Pass 2NT Pass
???

Question 1: If NS plays Stayman and Jacob Transfer, do they apply to North's next bid? or North's next bid is natural?

Heidi's Answer 1


Stayman and Jacoby Transfer's ONLY apply when Partner has OPENED the bidding some number of NT. You can also use they if Partner OVERCALLED a natural strong NT.

But here South did not open 1NT or 2NT.

Neither Stayman nor Jacoby Tranfers will apply on this auction.



Question 2: How to bid this hand to find out if it is better for NS to play in a ♠ or NT contract?

Heidi's Answer 2


On this hand North will take South out of their NT bid and bid 3. This should show an unbalanced hand since they took South out of their NT bid.

(If you play something called checkback Stayman you can do that but most readers will not know what that is!)

Therefore North should have a five card ♠ suit. That is the only way they can be unbalanced.

South can now bid 3♠. They can't have four ♠ or they would have supported North earlier. So South must have three ♠.

North can now bid 4♠.

Major's tend to play better than NT so most people prefer to play in a major suit fit if they can.

Final Auction



North
♠AT832
754
J653
♣K
West
♠74
KJ
QT742
♣J753
East
♠QJ5
AT832
98
♣864
South
♠K96
Q96
AK
♣AQT94

N E S W
Pass Pass 1♣ Pass
1♠ Pass 2NT Pass
3 Pass 3♠ Pass
4♠ Pass Pass Pass

Saturday, December 12, 2020

Bidding Question

Hi Heidi,

We came across a few hands that we don't know how to bid today:

All non-vulnerable, S is dealer:

North
♠76543
AT86
J
♣AK6
West
♠QJ8
J7
964
♣QT952
East
♠KT2
K943
K832
♣J4
South
♠A9
Q52
AQT75
♣873

N E S W
1 Pass
1♠ Pass 2 Pass
2 Pass ???

Question: With North bidding a new suit, does South has to bid and not Pass? If so, what should they bid? Is there a way for South to ask North to bid NT if they have a ♣ control?

Heidi's Answer


Yes a new suit by Responder is forcing so South does have to bid after North 2 bid.

For more information on this click here: How does Responder Force if 1NT has NOT been bid?

They do not have to ask for a ♣ stopper. When they show North they do not have support for any of North's suits, North will bid NT if they have a stopper.

So South is kinda stuck bidding 3 right now.

Then North can bid 3NT.

Just a Note


Rather than 2, a better rebid by South would be 1NT. I know you don't have the ♣ stopped but you are minimum and balanced. If North raises you to game they likely have something in the ♣ suit. In any case the Opponents are not bidding ♣ so you should be fine.

The bidding then would go:
N E S W
1 Pass
1♠ Pass 1NT Pass
3* Pass 3NT Pass
Pass Pass

This would be the auction if the partnership is playing good old fashioned nothing fancy Standard American. If the partnership was playing something fancy like New Minor Forcing the auction would be different.

* For information on that 3 bid click here: How Does Responder Force Over 1NT?

Tuesday, December 8, 2020

Bidding Question

Hi Heidi,

We came across a hand that we didn't know how to bid today:

EW Vulnerable, N is dealer:

North
♠QT82
4
K976
♣Q764
West
♠A7
Q7
A53
♣AKT985
East
♠95
KT85
QJ42
♣J32
South
♠KJ643
AJ9632
T8

N E S W
Pass Pass 2 3♣
Pass Pass ???

Question: Should South have bid 3♠?

Heidi's Answer


"6-5 Come ALIVE! Bid until you are Doubled, Game or Slam!" was one on my mom's favourite sayings. This hand certainly qualifies!

I would say the South hand is just TOO good to open a weak 2 with that distribution. They should either open at the 1 level (which is fine since they are in third seat) or potentially "Pass" and come in later. Since they are in 3rd seat I would open the bidding for sure. (If Partner wasn't a passed hand I still might open at the 1 level but I also might "Pass" and hope to show a distributional hand with majors later on. Depends on my mood. Certainly the colours are right for bidding.)

But in third seat open at the 1 level. You are allowed to (even encouraged to!) open weaker hands in third seat.

But what to open?

If you open 1 you risk not being able to show your ♠ suit. If Partner bids 1NT, bidding 2♠ is a reverse showing a strong distributional hand.

Another option is to open 1♠ and rebid 2 showing a 5-4 or 5-5 hand depending on the auction. But this will never get across to Partner you have longer .

Unfortunately you have to make a choice. But fortunately I think either bid works here.

If South opens 1, West will probably bid 2♣. Now North can Double to show ♠ and (Negative Double). East will bid 3♣ but South can now bid either 3♠ (minimum) or 4♠ (if they realize the potential of their 6-5.) After a 3♠ bid by South the Opponents might compete with 4♣ -- West is very strong -- but that just might push N/S into their 4♠ game.

If South opens 1♠, West will probably bid 2♣. Now North will show some sort of ♠ raise. Either a limit raise (with a 3♣ bid) or a simple raise with a 2♠ bid. After a limit raise South should bid game on their distribution alone. After a simple raise of 2♠, East will bid 3♣ and South can make a game try with 3. West might bid 4♣ but even if they don't, North should bid 4♠ since they can help stop the losers with their singleton and extra trump.

If West bids to 5♣ North should certainly DOUBLE them. PENALTY.

South might have some stressful moments with the Double (after all they don't have many points and/or tricks with all their bidding) but should trust their partner and sit for it. Partner should only count on them for having a distributional hand with the majors which is exactly what they have.

If South leads a ♠ the Defence will certainly take this contract down three for 800 points. Even a lead of their singleton should take the contract down two for 500. Either one makes up for the NS game (420).

Suggested Auction

I think South should just open 1♠ in third set. You plan on telling Partner you have the majors and let them choose which one to play in. I'd hate to give up on the ♠ suit by opening 1.

North will probably just give a simple raise to 2♠.

South can now show their suit looking for a potential game. 6-5 Come Alive!

North should bid the game with their singleton and extra trump.

West will probably be in there since they do have quite a strong hand. Sometimes points do not equal tricks unfortunately! I assume they will try to defeat the Opponents rather than bidding 5♣. If they do decide to bid 5♣ North should DOUBLE and West will be sorry.

North
♠QT82
4
K976
♣Q764
West
♠A7
Q7
A53
♣AKT985
East
♠95
KT85
QJ42
♣J32
South
♠KJ643
AJ9632
T8

N E S W
Pass Pass 1♠ 2♣
2♠ 3♣ 3 4♣
4♠ Pass Pass Pass

Friday, December 4, 2020

Hand 10 -- 1NT vs 1 Major

This is chapter 10 in the story of my attempt to determine if it is better to open 1♠ or 1NT with 15 to 17 HCP and a five card ♠ suit.

The journey started with this post:
Later On

Here is the tenth hand I generated:

Dealer: East North
♠Q
Q87
K42
♣QJT765
West
♠T832
K53
J653
♣92
East
♠AKJ95
642
AT7
♣A4
South
♠764
AJT9
Q98
♣K83

Dealer is East and everyone vulnerable.

Double Dummy:
3♠ can make by E/W
1NT can make by E/W


Analysis

If East opens up 1NT I think West will "Pass" and North might find a way to show their ♣ suit. No matter how they do this I think East will now bid 2♠. South can raise Partner's ♣ suit. West can raise Partner's ♠ suit. LAW level.

What happens if North opens 1♠?

West will "Pass". Will North balance in with 2♣?

If they do, West should compete (LAW level) so you will end up with the same result.

However if North does not come into either auction then East is better off opening 1♠ since ♠ takes 9 tricks and NT takes only 7. So this hand is better off opening 1♠.

How does ♠ do realistically?

Declarer should find 8 tricks pretty easily and it is easy to let the Opponent's in and make them play for you for the ninth trick.

1NT is a little tougher to get that ninth trick. Plus if the Opponents get into ♣... If South leads a I assume Declarer will just take their eight tricks. Not a lot of ways to make nine tricks in NT.

To see the table where all the hands are listed click HERE!

Monday, November 30, 2020

Real Life Hand

Hi Heidi,

In the hand below, South considered three possible bids, 2♠, 2NT and 3, each had its shortcomings. What is your analysis and recommendation?

EW vulnerable, East is dealer:

North
♠432
T92
62
♣QJ982
West
♠JT8
KQ6
T98743
♣7
East
♠K9
J8543
J
♣AK653
South
♠AQ765
A7
AKQ5
♣T4

N E S W
1♣ 1♠ Pass
Pass 2 ???


Heidi's Answer

First of all I don't really like the auction so far. I don't like any of the bids. But we can discuss that later.

I think at this point South should be bidding 3 if they are going to bid. Give Partner a choice of suits.

I don't want to rebid my ♠ suit since I already told Partner I had five of them. I don't want to bid 2NT with no stopper in ♣ plus if Partner is very weak (which they should be in this auction!) NT will not be a fun place to play!

So if South bids 3, North will bid 3♠. They prefer that suit.

South knows that Partner couldn't even raise their 1♠ bid to 2♠ showing 6 to 10 points. They either don't have a fit or don't have any points. They will "Pass" 3♠.

The Result?

On this hand North/South can take 8 tricks in ♠. They should go down in 3♠.

On this hand East/West can take 8 tricks in . They should go down in 3.

How should the bidding go?

If East is going to open the bidding they should open the bidding 1. Yes their ♣ suit is much better but with two five card suits you bid the higher ranking suit first always. Always always always. Both Opener, Responder and even Overcaller!

With 19 HCP South can start with a "Double". This is the "BIG Double" to show a hand too strong to overcall! (But no one at the table knows this yet! Right now it just looks like a normal Take Out Double!)

West will bid 2. They have 6 to 10 points and a fit for Partner's major.

North would have had to bid over South's Take Out Double but West bid and took them off the hook. They are quite happy to "Pass".

East will "Pass".

South will now bid 2♠ to show a hand TOO STRONG to just overcall 1♠.

West will "Pass".

North will probably just "Pass". I like to raise Partner (if I can!) when they Double and bid their suit with not many points at all but this hand is too weak and balanced for me to want to say anything.

Will East compete to 3? With two five card suits they just might.

South will probably Double to show a very strong hand. They have lots of tricks.

Will North leave the Double in? Or will they bid 3♠ since they have support? Who knows. I would say with no tricks in their hand and support for Partner they will probably bid. But with these colours (E/W are VULNERABLE!) they might "Pass" and hope they go down.

Question for Heidi

Hi Heidi,

In the hand below, South recognized a slam possibility with partner's opening 1NT bid. However, with a singleton Spade, how should South continue to explore slam in this auction? Would you change the plan and the bidding if South's hand is of the same distribution and HCP but the singleton Spade is not an Ace?

All vulnerable, N is dealer:

North
♠K4
Q965
AQ9
♣AT43
West
♠J96532
743
T53
♣5
East
♠QT87
J82
642
♣QJ2
South
♠A
AKT
KJ87
♣K9876

N E S W
1NT Pass ???


Heidi's Answer Part 1

This is what South should be thinking:

Hmmmm. Partner opened 1NT. They have at least 15 HCP. I have 18 HCP. We have enough for a small slam.

Partner opened 1NT. They have at most 17 HCP. I have 18 HCP. At most we have 35 HCP. This is not enough for a grand slam.

So no matter what my Partner has we have enough for 6NT and 6NT only.

A major suit would be safer but we don't have a major suit fit. I don't have a five or even a four card major. So I cannot bid Stayman or make a Jacoby Transfer. My bid is 6NT.

Am I worried about my singleton?

Not really. It is the A♠. I should be fine.


The Result?

My recommended auction playing nothing fancy.

N E S W
1NT Pass 6NT Pass
Pass Pass


North
♠K4
Q965
AQ9
♣AT43
West
♠J96532
743
T53
♣5
East
♠QT87
J82
642
♣QJ2
South
♠A
AKT
KJ87
♣K9876

On this hand North/South can take 12 tricks in NT.

North will try to set up the ♣ suit. They will give East a ♣ trick but can easily take the rest.

Heidi's Answer Part 2

Would you change the plan and the bidding if South's hand is of the same distribution and HCP but the singleton Spade is not an Ace?

Good question. Let's change South's hand to this:

South
♠4
AKT
KJ87
♣AK876

The experts might be able to explore whether or not you belong in a grand slam in one of the minors or a small slam in the minors rather than NT. You are not an expert. You are going to just bid the same thing (6NT) and hope for the best. After all the only way you will go down is if the Opponents have both the AK♠ and lead a ♠. That would be unlucky.

Saturday, November 28, 2020

Question for Heidi

Hi Heidi,

In the hand below, North noticed Partner had just made a reverse and would like to explore a slam. What would be the plan and how to continue the bidding?

EW vulnerable, S is dealer:

North
♠AJT
95
J9
♣AKQT63
West
♠98643
T7
Q65
♣952
East
♠K75
J8632
T
♣J874
South
♠Q2
AKQ4
AK87432

N E S W
1 Pass
2♣ Pass 2 Pass


Heidi's Answer

It is good that North recognized the fact that South's bid IS a reverse. In THIS auction the reverse would be GAME FORCING. This means that, no matter what, neither Opener nor Responder are allowed to "Pass" unless a game is reached.

Are all reverses game forcing?

No. Opener normally needs 17+ HCP to make a reverse and the reverse would not be game forcing if North had responded at the 1 level. But North responded at the 2 level. They have more points.

Since North is promising a good 10 HCP, South only needs 16 HCP to make a reverse. Also their reverse would be game forcing since North responded at the 2 level.

So North can now safely bid 3♣ to show extra length in their suit knowing South will NOT "Pass". They are NOT in game.

South can also safely bid 3 knowing North will NOT "Pass". They are NOT in game.

What will North do?

They don't have a fit for either of South's red suits. They DO have a very nice ♣ suit and the ♠ well stopped. They will probably bid either 6NT OR maybe 4NT asking for Aces.

6NT shuts down the auction so I feel North will bid 4NT. When they find out the partnership holds all the Aces they will bid 5NT asking for Kings.

The partnership is off one King so North will settle for 6NT.

The Result?


My recommended auction playing just straight Blackwood -- nothing fancy.

N E S W
1 Pass
2♣ Pass 2 Pass
3♣ Pass 3 Pass
4NT Pass 5 Pass
5NT Pass 6 Pass
6NT Pass Pass Pass


North
♠AJT
95
J9
♣AKQT63
West
♠98643
T7
Q65
♣952
East
♠K75
J8632
T
♣J874
South
♠Q2
AKQ4
AK87432

On this hand North/South can take 12 tricks in NT as long as North is playing the hand. East cannot lead ♠ safely.

North will try to set up the suit since they have more than ♣. They will give West a trick but can easily take the rest.

What if we play Roman Keycard Blackwood?

That's a tougher auction to predict.

Playing Keycard Blackwood with no agreed upon suit, 4NT would be keycard on the last suit bid -- Diamonds.

South has three keycards with a void! How do they show that?

I would suggest you forget about showing your club void. Since Partner bid that suit (twice!) your void more than likely is not all that great. It's not going to help Partner set up their suit.

So you would show 3 keycards in whatever way your agreement tells you.

North will now ask for the Q in whatever way your agreement tells you.

South does not have the Q but they do have extra length. Can they show that instead?

Some people with extra lentgh say they have the Queen because they are sure with their extra length the Queen will drop. Here we are not sure if Partner even has Diamonds. I suggest erring on the side of caution and deny having the Q.

North will end up in 6NT.

Follow Up Question

If North does not bid 3♣ and goes straight to 4NT Keycard Blackwood what would the assumed trump suit for South to respond to the 4NT Keycard Blackwood be? Is it the last suit South bid, , in this case?

Follow Up Answer

Yes it would be. I don't suggest North doing that. When you have the points go as SLOWLY as the opposition allows you to explore ALL the possibilities. Over 2 North has no idea where the contract should be played. They should rebid their suit (♣) just in case South can support them.

Follow Up Question 2

What if North bid 3NT instead of 3♣? Would this jump to 3NT signal to partner that North has at least an opening hand to encourage South to use Gerber to ask for Ace to explore slam, which would allow South to stop the bidding at 4NT or 5NT?

Follow Up Answer 2

3NT is a shut down bid by North. They are saying they have no interest investigating any sort of slam. They shouldn't have a fit for either of South's suits. They should have the black suits stopped but not much else. They should have a MUCH WEAKER hand than they have. They could make this bid with 10 HCP. 3NT is NOT an option with these cards!

Now over 3NT South can always bid 4 since they are very strong and very distributional but on the majority of hands South will just pass 3NT. It is a very discouraging bid.

Over 3NT a bid of 4♣ would NOT be Gerber. It would say "I DON'T want to play in NT" and "I have some tolerance for ♣" and certainly at matchpoints I would play it as a slam try. But South would have to be very strong or very distributional to make this bid. North has shown NO INTEREST in any sort of slam by signing off in 3NT. Think of it. They could not support either of South's suits, they could not rebid their suit. They did not look for any other possibilities. They just bid 3NT to play. They have no interest. (This is why North shouldn't make this bid with this hand!)

With these two hands it is up to North to drive this auction further to slam. South has done a good job of showing a distributionally strong hand. They have to trust North to take it further.

Thursday, November 26, 2020

Signing off in 5NT

Question

Is there a way to signal to partner to not continue the Blackwood and close the bidding at 5NT after starting the 4NT Blackwood?

Answer

There IS a way!

After a partnership starts to ask for Aces with 4NT, a bid of 5NT then asks for Kings. Which is great on the majority of auctions where we want to explore further possiblities. We want to play at the 7 level perhaps.

But what about those auctions where you got too high? You find out your partnership is missing two Aces! Now you CAN'T play at even the 6 level! You instead want to SIGN OFF at the 5 level.

This is all sunshine and unicorns IF you have agreed to play in a suit contract. You just sign off in (say) 5♠ or 5 and Partner says "Pass".

But what happens if you wanted to play in 6NT and NOW (since you discovered you were off two Aces!) you want to sign off in 5NT? 5NT would be asking for Kings. You can't do that.

No you can't. So what do you do?

You "sign off" in a suit at the 5 level that you DO NOT want to play in.

Partner is now supposed to know to bid 5NT and now you can "Pass".

Hmmmmmm.

Sounds a little complicated.

Let's see this in action:
N E S W
1 Pass 1♠ Pass
2♣ Pass 4NT Pass
5♣ Pass 5 Pass
???

What does this auction mean?

North opened 1 and rebid 2♣ to show at least an opening hand with the minors.

South first showed ♠ and then got a little excited and asked for Aces.

North told South how many Aces they had. Playing normal Blackwood they have no Aces.

South has discovered they are missing two Aces!

What can South do?

South should learn a valuable lesson about taking things a little slower so they don't get into this perdicament again.

But that is for a later time. RIGHT NOW South has to get them out of the trouble they are in!

South wants to sign off in 5NT. But bidding 5NT right now asks for Kings! Ahhhhhhh!

So here's where the trick comes in. South bids 5.

5?!?!? What the heck is that?

Can South want to play in 5?

No. This is the first time anyone in the partnership even suggested . That can't be where South wants to play.

So THAT is the tip off to North. North should know NOW to bid 5NT. South will breathe a sigh of relief and "Pass".

Auction to "Sign Off":
N E S W
1 Pass 1♠ Pass
2♣ Pass 4NT Pass
5♣ Pass 5 Pass
5NT Pass Pass Pass


How often does this bid occur?


If everyone is bidding properly this bid does not occur often.

However I do play with one Partner who likes to overbid. I haven't quite figured out why since I like to bid slams and then I get excited and we get too high.

This happens quite a bit with him.

Here's an example. Your hand:
♠K983
AQJ3
Q2
♣AQ2

You hold 18 HCP! Nice! Partner opens the bidding 1! Even nicer!

So you respond 1. It's a forcing bid.

Partner now bids 3! Holy Smokes! This is supposed to show 16 to 18 HCP. (We do play a good 15 HCP with a really good suit.)

So I get excited. I bid 4NT. Partner shows me zero Aces.

How is that even possible?!?

So right now I could just sign off in 5. That would be the safe thing to do.

But it's matchpoints. Playing 5 and making 5 is going to get me a big fat zero matchpoints.

I want to get us to 5NT. Now we will be tied with all the people in 3NT making 11 tricks.

So I bid 5♠. It seems like I am signing off in 5♠ but I can NEVER want to play in ♠. Neither of us have bid ♠! That CAN'T be the place to play.

Partner should get tipped off and bid 5NT.

I will "Pass".

So our auction would be:
N E S W
1 Pass 1 Pass
3 Pass 4NT Pass
5♣ Pass 5♠ Pass
5NT Pass Pass Pass


P.S.
Turned out Partner overvalued his 14 HCP with no Aces because he had seven .

We made 5NT.

Monday, November 23, 2020

Hand 9 -- 1NT vs 1 Major

This is chapter 9 in the story of my attempt to determine if it is better to open 1♠ or 1NT with 15 to 17 HCP and a five card ♠ suit.

The journey started with this post:
Later On

Here is the ninth hand I generated:

Dealer: North North
♠KQT93
AJ6
KT
♣QJ3
West
♠AJ85
KQT
A87
♣864
East
♠6
9432
J943
♣KT92
South
♠742
875
Q652
♣A75

Dealer is North and East/West are vulnerable.

Double Dummy:
2♠ can make by N/S
1NT can make by N/S


Analysis

If North opens up 1NT I think they will play it there. South does not have enough to respond and the Opponents don't have a suit they can play in.

What happens if North opens 1♠?

Most newer players do not play constructive raises. They will get too high. South will respond 2♠ and North with their better than minimum hand will try for a game. They will stop in 3♠ but 3♠ goes down easily. There is only one Dummy entry. Sadness.

Even if you do play constructive raises it is hard to play this hand for the eight tricks needed to make 2♠.

I'm going to say this is a hand better off if North opens the bidding 1NT.

To see the table where all the hands are listed click HERE!

Friday, November 20, 2020

Hand 8 -- 1NT vs 1 Major

This is chapter 8 in the story of my attempt to determine if it is better to open 1♠ or 1NT with 15 to 17 HCP and a five card ♠ suit.

The journey started with this post:
Later On

Here is the eighth hand I generated:

Dealer: West North
♠84
A97532
QJ
♣963
West
♠AJ973
KQ
AK3
♣752
East
♠Q2
J864
T9865
♣AJ
South
♠KT65
T
742
♣KQT84

Dealer is West and everyone is vulnerable.

Double Dummy:
4NT can make by E/W


Analysis

If West opens up 1NT, North will pass and what will East do? Do they have enough to invite?

I think they do. They have 8 HCP and a five card suit. If you use the Rule of 16 it will tell you to go.

So East will bid Stayman. South might "Double" to get a ♣ lead.

West will probably bid 2♠ since they do have a five card suit.

East will now either bid 2NT (which West will raise to 3NT since they are MAXIMUM) or bid 3NT themselves.

What happens if West opens 1♠?

East will respond 1NT and West with their 17 HCP will raise to 2NT. East will bid 3NT.

South will lead the K♣.

So this one I think the result will be the same. 3NT will be reached no matter what West opens. They will get a ♣ lead no matter what.

To see the table where all the hands are listed click HERE!

Sunday, November 15, 2020

Real Life Hand

Hi Heidi,

In the hand below, how should West bid? 1♠ or 1NT? What is your analysis and recommendation?

All vulnerable, East is dealer:

North
♠T8543
83
982
♣K64
West
♠AKJ9
A752
J6
♣QT7
East
♠762
94
AQT54
♣J52
South
♠Q
KQJT6
K73
♣A983

N E S W
Pass 1 ???


Heidi's Answer

I don't hate overcalling on a strong four card suit but I do try to avoid it so on this hand I probably would overcall 1NT to show my 15 to 18 HCP with a balanced hand. 1NT just gets across my strength and balanced shape. I would bid 1♠ with a much worse, much more distributional hand. So that would be my choice on this hand.

The Result?

On this hand North/South can take 7 tricks in and ♣.

East/West can take 9 tricks in and 7 tricks in ♠.

If West makes a 1♠ overcall North will "Pass" and East will raise to 2♠. The auction will likely end there. If North/South want to try to bid they will get too high and go down too many!

If West makes a 1NT overcall North will "Pass" and East will "Pass". Will South let them play in 1NT? They should at these colours.

East/West can go down 1 trick in 1NT. I think they will. North will lead a . West will try the finesse which will lose. After South takes all their winners they will switch to their next best suit -- ♣ -- and take the next two tricks. Down 1.

Hard for East to bid on this hand.

So unless South does something crazy when vulnerable, E/W will get the contract and go down no matter what West bids.

Tuesday, November 10, 2020

Question for Heidi

Hi Heidi,

Do you have any recommendations or guidelines on how to overcall opponent's preemptive opening, particularly when the hand doesn't fit the criteria to do a takeout double? How to indicate to partner that the bidding is competitive versus one round forcing versus game forcing?

As an example, with the hand below, West at some tables opened with 3♠, how should N/S bid?

All non-vulnerable, W is dealer and opened 2♠:

North
♠AK
AJT85
K
♣K8543
West
♠JT87543
94
A7
♣QT
East
♠62
Q732
Q943
♣J76
South
♠Q9
K6
JT8652
♣A92

N E S W
2♠
???


Heidi's Answer

The purpose of a preempt is to mess up the opponents. This works most of the time. Works especially well when the preempt is a little less disciplined because now other tables might not be in the same situation.

There really is no way to say to Partner that you are just competing because you yourself have a weak hand with a long suit. Once the Opponents preempt, overcalling shows a nice hand. Jumping to game shows an even stronger hand. (You don't preempt a preempt!)

So you do show values when you overcall after a preempt. What kind of values are we talking?

I would recommend you stretch your bidding a little more when you are distributional. Especially if you have shortness in the opponents suit. Maybe make bids you might be a little uncomfortable with.

Here North has a clear cut 3 overcall. If you have ways to show a two suited hand you could also do that. Note that even overcalling 2NT would work on this hand. You won't get to 4 but you will get to 3NT and that will make. So as long as North bids things will work out.

Now South has to stretch a little. They have 10 HCP (admittedly the Queen of ♠ isn't worth much) but do not have three card support. Whatever. Just raise partner to 4. You've got to take a call. Doubleton honour is good and partner might have a six card suit. If not the 5-2 fit could play just as well.

The Result?

Here 4 will make even with a 5-2 fit and a 4-2 trump break.

So make bids you are not entirely comfortable with. Sometimes you get to a good contract. Sometimes you don't and the opponents misdefend. Sometimes you'll go down but the sacrifice will be worth it.

Sure, sometimes you will get a bad board. But learn from the bad boards. Why were they bad? Was it just unlucky? Or should you maybe have had a better suit? Or more distribution? Over time you will develop a better sense of when to come in and when not to come it.

If you get one bad board but three good boards from stretching in the bidding it will be well worth the effort.

Over 3♠?

If West had opened 3♠ what could North have bid? Well they can make whatever bid they want -- 3NT, 4 -- and it will work out. South will "Pass" any bid and both contracts make. So as long as North bids things end up magically wonderful!

Wednesday, November 4, 2020

Short Club OR Better Minor -- What's the difference and how do I know what I play?

To sum up IF you open the bidding 1 and you promise FOUR then you play the "Short Club" and must alert each and every time you open the bidding.

You do NOT play "Better Minor" if you promise four . You can't. End of story.

I do think it's cute when my novices fill in the Convention Card and do the following:

That's actually impossible. You can't guarantee four when you open the bidding if you also guarantee three ♣ and five in a major. The numbers just don't add up.

If you play "Better Minor" your Convention Card will be filled out like this:

If you play "Short Club" your Convention Card will be filled out like this:

Let's go through this in more detail...

Better Minor


Better Minor is normal Standard American playing five card majors. It is what most people are taught from the very beginning.

If you have the values to open the bidding but do not have a five card major you still have to open the bidding but now you must open 1 of a minor.

Since you could have a hand with two four card majors that you cannot open 1 of the major you would therefore only have five minor suit cards. You will now open your LONGEST minor. But if those five minor suit cards are split evenly (three in one suit and two in the other) you could easily have only a THREE card minor when you open the bidding 1 of a minor.

So therefore with 4=4=3=2 shape you would open 1.

With 4=4=2=3 shape you would open 1♣.

Note that in both cases you only have a three card minor when you open the bidding.

If both minors are of equal length you do the following:
You open 1♣ with three ♣ and three
You open 1 with four and four ♣
You open 1 with five and five ♣
You open 1 with six and six ♣

So you will only ever open 1 with a three card suit IFF you have two four card majors.

For more information on that see this post:
Opening 1

So when a player opens 1 they do NOT guarantee having four . However because of the fact they will only ever open 1 with a specific 4=4=3=2 shape they DO have four 97% of the time. If you find out that Opener does NOT have a four card major then you know for a fact (100%) they have FOUR in their hand.

You do NOT have to alert any minor suit opening bid if you play "Better Minor".

Short Club

The Short Club can also be played as part of a normal Standard American system. It is not much differnt.

If you have the values to open the bidding but do not have a five card major you still have to open the bidding but now you must open 1 of a minor.

If you want to absolutely guarantee Partner four when you open the bidding you now need five of a major to open 1 of that major and four to open 1. So if you are 4=4=3=2 shape you MUST open 1♣. Note that with this hand you only have TWO ♣ in your hand.

So now:
You open 1♣ with two ♣ and three

But you still obey these rules:
You open 1♣ with three ♣ and three
You open 1 with four and four ♣
You open 1 with five and five ♣
You open 1 with six and six ♣

So you will only ever open 1♣ with a two card suit IFF you have two four card majors and a three card suit.

You do MUST alert the opening bid of 1♣ if you play "Short Club". According to the ACBL (American Contract Bridge League) your Partner must state "Could be short as two" EACH and EVERY time you open the bidding 1♣. Similarly if Partner opens the bidding 1♣ YOU must now say "Could be short as two". Right now most people are online. Online you SELF ALERT. So EACH and EVERY time you open the bidding 1♣ you MUST type in "Could be short as two" in the Message box when you make your 1♣ opening bid.

How do I know what I play?

Here is your hand:

♠Q853
KJ64
A85
♣A5

What will you open the bidding?

If you will open the bidding 1 then you are playing "Better Minor". No alerts are necessary.

If you will open the bidding 1♣ because you do not have four in the hand then you are playing "Short Club". You or your Partner MUST ALERT the Opponents each and every time one of you opens the bidding 1♣.

Is it worth it to play Short Club?

I would say "No!"

Especially now when you have to do all that typing. It's just not worth the effort. 97% of the time your Partner will have a four card suit playing Better Minor. Assume they do and bid accordingly.

However some people really like the Short Club for whatever reason. It's not a convention I would say stop playing if you like it -- I'm pretty easy going that way. You have to do the typing -- not me.

Friday, October 30, 2020

Why play in 3NT when you have a minor suit fit?

To understand why you want to play in 3NT rather than 5 of a minor you have to first understand SCORING at matchpoints.

Click HERE to see the post on scoring at matchpoints.

If you play in 5 of a minor you have to take at least 11 tricks.

If you play in 3NT you only have to take 9 tricks.

So if you can take 10 tricks on the hand in 3NT you've just scored an overtrick! :)

In 5 of a minor you've just gone down. :(

If you take overtricks in 3NT they are worth 30 points each.

If you take overtricks in 5 of a minor they are only worth 20 points each.

So let's look at this table:
N/S Pair E/W Pair Contract By Result N/S Score E/W Score N/S Matchpoints E/W Matchpoints
1 1 3NT N +2 460
2 3 3NT N +1 430
3 5 3NT N +3 490
4 7 3NT N +1 430
5 9 3NT N +2 460
6 2 5 N +1 420
7 4 3NT S +3 490
8 6 6 N M 920
9 8 3NT N +2 460
10
11
12

Here we have our heros N/S Pair #6 playing in 5. They had a fit so they wanted to play in that suit but were too scared to go to the 6 level. However they did make an overtrick so they that thought that should be good for scoring.



They were wrong.

One pair bid (and made!) the 6 slam.

Everyone else bid 3NT and made at least one overtrick.

So remember at matchpoints it is ALL about how many other pairs you beat on your score.

For bidding 5 and taking 12 tricks N/S scored 420 points.

They were not vulnerable so they got 400 points for bidding (and making!) the game and 20 points for the overtrick.

For bidding (and making) 3NT everyone else got 400 points -- same as bidding and making 5. But what everyone else cashed in on were their overtricks. Each overtrick was worth 30 points.

The one pair that bid the slam got 400 points for bidding the game, 20 points for the overtrick and because they bid the small slam they got a 500 point BONUS. So they ended up with 920 points.

So putting in the matchpoints (which is all you really are concerned about at matchpoints) the pair that bid the slam beat everyone. There were 8 others playing so N/S Pair #8 picked up 8 matchpoints for the board. That's 100%!

N/S Pair #6 picked up 0 matchpoints for the board. That's 0%. They did not score more points than anyone. Not one single pair.

So let's look at this table completed with the matchpoints:
N/S Pair E/W Pair Contract By Result N/S Score E/W Score N/S Matchpoints E/W Matchpoints
1 1 3NT N +2 460 4
2 3 3NT N +1 430 1.5
3 5 3NT N +3 490 6.5
4 7 3NT N +1 430 1.5
5 9 3NT N +2 460 4
6 2 5 N +1 420 0
7 4 3NT S +3 490 6.5
8 6 6 N M 920 8
9 8 3NT N +2 460 4
10
11
12

So you can see the two pairs that were playing in 3NT and only made 1 overtrick still beat N/S Pair #6. So they get 1 point for beating N/S #6 and a half a point for tying each other.

So when playing matchpoints the moral of the story is to either be in 3NT OR 6 of the minor.

If you play in 5 of the minor you'll get a big fat zero.

Follow Up

Is this ALWAYS true? Can one NEVER play in 5 of a minor at matchpoints?

No. Sometimes you just can't play in 3NT. Sometimes you KNOW the opponents are going to lead a suit you don't have stopped. If you have shortness in that suit you can sometimes make a game but not a slam. That would be a reason to play in 5 of the minor.

Perhaps the Opponents bid up to 4 of a major. You can no longer play in 3NT. You don't think you'll get enough tricks by doubling them. Now you might want to play in 5 of the minor.

You want to play in 5 of the minor as a sacrifice.

But unless there is a GOOD reason to not play in 3NT -- choose to play in 3NT at matchpoints. It's well worth it.

Saturday, October 24, 2020

Real Life Hand

Hi Heidi,

In the following hand, can NS get into the action and compete to get a contract in one of the minor suits?

East opens with 2.

All non-vulnerable, E is dealer:

North
♠J4
3
T6432
♣KQ965
West
♠AKQT52
JT5
85
♣A8
East
♠9863
AQ98642
7
♣7
South
♠7
K7
AKQJ9
♣JT432

East opens the bidding 2. Can South bid?

Heidi's Answer


First of all East has a SEVEN card suit. They should be opening at the THREE level if they are going to pre-empt.

However they didn't, so we will discuss what will happen over the 2 bid.

There are quite a few ways the bidding on this hand could go. Let's look at some of them.

First of all South could start with a 4NT bid. This is a variation of the Unusual 2NT bid which shows at least 5-5 in both minor suits. That is an option. Are they strong enough for this bid? Probably not.

South could also choose to bid 3. If North will not know what 4NT means OR South does not want to bid so high right away they should certainly bid 3.

If South makes either bid North should not let the Opponents play unless they are at the 6 level. They have too much offence and no defence. They should be bidding quickly to the 5 level and competing to the 6 level if forced. They are deliberately bidding more than they think they can make in order to stop the Opponents from bidding and making their game.

What does West do? They have options also.

West should bid 3♠ if they are allowed to. This is a forcing bid. West does not intend to play in ♠ because they have a nice fit but West wants Partner to know where their values lie in case the auction gets a little out of control. West knows that their side has the majors and the Opponents probably have the minors. The bidding could escalate quickly! Plus on the off chance East is on lead West wants a ♠ lead.

If West does not choose to bid 3♠ they should at least bid 4. Game should easily make.

If West bids 3♠ originally then East should be raising ♠. They have got four card support and a nice hand! However if their Partner bids then East should just "Pass". (This is why a thinking West would have bid 3♠ originally -- it helps Partner decide what to do.)

West is stuck if North does bid to the 6 level. West knows they probably won't take 12 tricks so will probably have to Double the Opponents but they won't be very happy with the result. This contract might even make on a bad day!

The Result?

On this hand North/South can take 10 tricks in either minor but East/West can take 11 tricks in either major. So it is good for North/South to compete to the 6 level. They should get Doubled and go down 2 but that is minus 300 versus minus 450 for letting the Opponents make 5 of a major.

That was probably a little confusing with all the ifs so let's go over the auctions depending on the approach taken.

Auction 1 -- South bids 4NT to show both minors:


If Partner thinks you are asking for Aces this is NOT a GOOD bid!

But even if Partner knows you have the minors I don't think South is strong enough for a leap to 4NT right away. Not when they can overcall their lovely suit at the 3 level. But some people might do it. West should certainly support East's suit since they cannot now show their own suit -- the bidding is too high! North knows they have a double fit in each minor and won't be sure just what is going on so they will bid one of the minors. West should Double just in case it is their hand but shouldn't be too surprised if this contract makes. West doesn't have too many minor suit tricks and their own Ace might not cash. Partner might not get a trick at all.

N E S W
2 4NT 5
6♣ or 6 Pass Pass Double
Pass Pass Pass

Auction 2 -- South bids 3 and West bids 3♠


Over 2 South should definitely bid 3. They've got a strong suit. West can bid 3♠ and support later on. West is expecting the Opponents to bid more so this bid might help Partner decide what to do in the bidding. North will leap to 5 to show a weak hand with lots of trump. That'll take up room in the Opponent's bidding. East with four ♠ and a SEVEN! card suit should be raising to 5♠. Will South bid 6? They might with little defence and a weak Partner. But if South does not bid 6 then North should for sure. They have no defence and a Partner who could not Double 5♠. Again it will be up to West who will just Double and hope this goes down.

N E S W
2 3 3♠
5 5♠ Pass Pass
6 Pass Pass Double
Pass Pass Pass

Auction 3 -- South bids 3 and West bids 4


Over 2 South should definitely bid 3. They've got a strong suit. West is sure game will make and so they bid 4. North will bid 5 but now this bid might show values. East should "Pass" and leave things up to their partner. South will "Pass". West should now bid 5. They've got a good chance of making this if East has a good suit. North with no defence might just bid 6. Again it will be up to West who will just Double and hope this goes down.

N E S W
2 3 4
5 Pass Pass 5
6 Pass Pass Double
Pass Pass Pass

Question: North is bidding quite a bit with very few values. Would they really do that in real life?


I don't know if they would. People do get scared of the 6 level. Note that I do NOT think North is thinking they are making this contract. But I do think that I would make this bid along with all my partner's. We do it as a SACRIFICE. Yes we are going down but we are hoping that we in going down we are giving the Opponents fewer points then we would have if we had let them play their contract. Heck, no one really knows what is going on and what will make and what will not. But North has ZERO defence and knows that they are not getting too many suit tricks. Maybe they will push the Opponents too high? Maybe this might only go down 1 or 2? Who knows.

Monday, October 19, 2020

Questions about bidding a new suit over a Pre-empt

I have a few questions from my latest games:

A) I opened with a preemptive bid. Partner bid a new suit. Is this bid forcing?
Go to Answer 1A

B) If it is, how should I bid? Do I raise partner's suit one level if I have support for my partner's suit (3+ cards?)? If I don't have support, do I bid NT or rebid my own long suit one level up?
Go to Answer 1B

C) If bidding a new suit is not forcing, how should my partner bid with a very good hand?
Go to Answer 1C

D) If my partner does not have a very good hand but prefers to play in a different suit than mine, how do they bid?
Go to Answer 1D

Heidi's Answer to 1A

Question 1A) I opened with a preemptive bid. Partner bid a new suit. Is this bid forcing?

Answer to 1A: In Standard American, a new suit by Responder after Partner makes a pre-emptive bid is FORCING. That means that Opener MUST bid again if Responder bids a new suit. Note that the pre-emptive bid could be at the two level or even the three level!

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

North MUST bid!

N E S W
3 Pass 3♠ Pass
???

North MUST bid!

However...

You and your Partner can agree to play it non-forcing (totally up to you) but then you MUST ALERT the Opponents!

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

North can Pass BUT North must say "ALERT" as soon as South puts the 2♠ bid down on the table. If the Opponents ask North why they alerted, North should say "The 2♠ bid was non-forcing. I am allowed to Pass."

N E S W
3 Pass 3♠ Pass
???

North can Pass BUT North must say "ALERT" as soon as South puts the 3♠ bid down on the table. If the Opponents ask North why they alerted, North should say "The 3♠ bid was non-forcing. I am allowed to Pass."

Right now most of us are playing online. Online you must self alert. So South, when they make the 2♠ bid (or 3♠ bid), needs to tell the Opponents that the bid is non-forcing. Note that this information does NOT go to their Partner. Their Partner is already supposed to know!

Back to Top

Heidi's Answer to 1B

Question 1B: If a new suit is forcing, how should I bid? Do I raise partner's suit one level if I have support for my partner's suit (3+ cards?)? If I don't have support, do I bid NT or rebid my own long suit one level up?

Answer to 1B: You can do all the above!

You can raise Partner with three cards in their suit. You can even raise Partner if you have a doubleton honour in their suit if you don't have anything better to say! You can bid another four card suit. You can bid NT with a maximumish balanced hand. If you've got nothing else to say just rebid your suit.

Let's see some examples:

Example 1:
Take this hand which is North:
♠963
AQJ982
73
♣T2

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

On this hand you can raise Partner's ♠ suit because you have three card support.

Example 2:
Take this hand which is North:
♠K3
AQ8642
873
♣T2

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

With this hand I would probably just raise to 3♠ because I have a doubleton honour in my Partner's suit and Partner could easily have six ♠. Plus rebid options are not that good.

Example 3:
Take this hand which is North:
♠3
AJT982
K873
♣T2

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

With this hand I would bid 3 to suggest another place to play.

Example 4:
Take this hand which is North:
♠3
QJT982
QJ3
♣QJ2

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

With this hand I would probably bid 2NT to suggest both minors being stopped. I hate to do that with a singleton but I am maximum for my weak 2 bid and Partner did bid that ♠ suit.

Example 5:
Take this hand which is North:
♠83
KQT982
63
♣762

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

With this hand I would just rebid my suit. 3. I've got nothing else to show them.

Example 6:
Trickier one! Take this hand which is North:
♠3
KQT986
6432
♣T2

N E S W
2 Pass 2♠ Pass
???

With this hand I would probably ignore my suit. That might encourage Partner to bid 3NT thinking I had the covered. I am very weak also. I think I'd just rebid 3 on this one.

Back to Top

Heidi's Answer to 1C

Question 1C) If bidding a new suit is not forcing, how should my partner bid with a very good hand?

Answer to 1C: GOT ME!!! I play a new suit forcing. I have no idea what people do if they don't play it forcing and they have a good hand. Maybe they just leap to game. Who knows?

Back to Top

Heidi's Answer to 1D

Question 1D) If my partner does not have a very good hand but prefers to play in a different suit than mine, how do they bid?

Answer to 1D: They don't. They "Pass" and let you play in yours.

Generally if you are weak and Partner is weak the Opponents step in and start to bid because they have the values. If you have no fit and no points this is a GOOD thing for you! But if you don't have values and you play a new suit as forcing you CANNOT bid. You just get into trouble most of the time.

Back to Top

Monday, October 12, 2020

Question for Heidi

Hi Heidi,

Can one use Michael's with a strong hand?

If I have a strong hand with 5-5 Major-Minor distribution that fits the Michael's convention, should I still bid Michael's? Like this hand below:

All non-vulnerable, W is dealer:

North
♠2
KQJ87
A8
♣AK742
West
♠AKQ9753
A4
Q53
♣3
East
♠64
53
KJT932
♣986
South
♠JT8
T962
76
♣QJT5

West opens the bidding 1♠. Can North bid 2♠?

Heidi's Answer


The Michaels convention is a direct cuebid of the Opponent's suit. It shows a distributional two suited hand.

So if my RHO opens 1 of a minor and I bid 2 of that same minor I am showing at least five cards in both majors.

If my RHO opens 1 of a major and I bid 2 of that same major I am showing at least five cards in the OTHER major along with a undisclosed minor suit holding of at least five cards.

What is the point count required to make this bid?

Totally dependent on partnership agreement. Some people will make this bid on not much at all as a kind of "preempt". Others think it should be more constructive. Some play something called "Mini-Max" that says they are either really weak or really strong. In any case you can definitely make this bid with a strong hand so Michaels is an option on this hand for sure.

Would I bid 2♠ on this hand?

Sure, I'm good with that as long as you are prepared to raise Partner's 3 response to 4 to show your big hand.

Partner could have nothing but if they have a fit and have one nice card for you the partnership should be able to make a game.

Now it all depends on whether or not West will let you play it there. You can bet they are going to bid at least 3♠. Will they bid 4♠? Unclear. But I wouldn't let you play in 4 with the West hand. Not when I am not vulnerable.

Wednesday, October 7, 2020

Hand 7 -- 1NT vs 1 Spade

This is chapter 7 in the story of my attempt to determine if it is better to open 1♠ or 1NT with 15 to 17 HCP and a five card ♠ suit.

The journey started with this post:
Later On

Here is the seventh hand I generated:

North
♠74
J76
762
♣K8742
West
♠KQ9
82
QT843
♣QJT
East
♠852
AK953
K95
♣65
South
♠AJT63
QT4
AJ
♣A93

Dealer is South and everyone is vulnerable.

Double Dummy:
2 makes by E/W
1NT can make by E/W
2 makes by E/W
1♠ makes by N/S
2♣ makes by N/S


Analysis

If South opens up 1NT, West will pass and North will pass. Will East come in?

If East does not come to then South will play in 1NT and go down.

If South opens 1♠, again West and North will pass. Will East come in?

If East does not come to then South will play in 1♠ and make.

What if East decides to come in?

What happens then?

If South has opened 1NT and East makes a bid to show a single suited hand then North will probably want to show their ♠ suit. I'm sure they will do that on the other hands (sometimes they need to!) so now they are going to because 2♠ will not make.

If South has opened 1♠ and East bids 2 then South no longer needs to show their ♠ suit. They should wait and see if North can raise. (North can't.)

So this one I think is better to open 1♠ because if East does not bid you are better off playing in ♠ and if East does bid you won't need to show your suit (and get too high!) because you already have shown it.

To see the table where all the hands are listed click HERE!

Wednesday, September 30, 2020

Hand 6 - 1NT or 1 Spade?

This is chapter 6 in the story of my attempt to determine if it is better to open 1♠ or 1NT with 15 to 17 HCP and a five card ♠ suit.

The journey started with this post:
Later On

Here is the sixth hand I generated:

North
♠4
AJT5
K9765
♣Q76
West
♠7653
862
4
♣KJ984
East
♠KQJ92
KQ9
AJ8
♣T5
South
♠AT8
743
QT32
♣A32

Dealer is East and E/W are vulnerable.

Double Dummy:
EW 3♠
NS 3
NS 1NT
EW 2♣
NS 1

Analysis

If East opens up 1NT, South will Pass and so will West. Will North come in? Can they show this hand?

If they don't come in East will play in 1NT and go down.

If East opens up 1♠, South will Pass and so will West. Will North come in?

If they don't come in East will play in 1♠ and take 9 tricks.

So better to open 1♠ if North does not come in.

If North comes in and East has opened 1♠ it is easy for West to compete to 3♠. LAW of total tricks.

If East opens 1NT and North does bid just what do they bid?

If North decides to show either a one suited hand or a two suited hand either way they are bidding at the 2 level and East can bid 2♠ and West can compete. So it probably won't matter if North does come in.

But because ♠ plays MUCH better than NT and because it is easier for West to compete when they know they have a nine card ♠ fit I am going to say it is better to open 1♠ with the East hand.

To see the table where all the hands are listed click HERE!

Wednesday, September 23, 2020

Slam Bidding with a Five Card Major when Partner opens xNT

Here are some ways to bid (or investigate) slams over any NT opening hand if you have a five card major.

Note that these bids all mean the same whether or not Opener opened the bidding:
1NT to show a balanced hand with 15 to 17 HCP
2NT to show a balanced hand with 20 or 21 HCP
3NT to show a balanced hand with 25 to 27 HCP
2♣ followed by 2NT to show a balanced hand with 22 to 24 HCP or
2♣ followed by 3NT to show a balanced hand with 25 to 27 HCP

If your NT ranges are slightly different then just change the points Responder needs to make the bid. If Opener has more points, Responder needs fewer points -- that just makes sense.

NOTE: The bids in this post all assume that Responder has five card major and plays Jacoby Transfers. Responder's Hands are also very balanced so they will be inviting or forcing to slam on high card values ALONE.

Point count needed to bid a slam


With a balanced hand opposite a balanced hand you need:
33 HCP to bid a Small Slam -- You should not have only 32 HCP -- Missing 8 HCP you could be missing two Aces! Not good at the 6 level.
37 HCP to bid a Grand Slam -- You should not have only 36 HCP -- Missing 4 HCP you could be missing one Ace! Not good at the 7 level.

Quantitative 4NT showing a five card Major


If Opener opens the bidding ANY number of NT (see the five possibilities above), if Responder first transfers to their suit and then bids 4NT this invites a small slam while also showing a five card major.

Responder's values will differ for this bid because it totally depends on what range Opener has.

Point count if Opener opens 1NT showing 15 to 17 HCP

Responder would need 16 or 17 HCP to bid 4NT.

Point count if Opener opens 2NT showing 20 or 21 HCP

Responder would need 12 HCP to bid 4NT.

Point count if Opener opens 3NT showing 25 to 27 HCP

Responder would need 6 or 7 HCP to bid 4NT.

Point count if Opener opens 2♣ followed by 2NT to show a balanced hand with 22 to 24 HCP

Responder would need 9 or 10 HCP to bid 4NT.

Point count if Opener opens 2♣ followed by 3NT to show a balanced hand with 25 to 27 HCP

Responder would need 6 or 7 HCP to bid 4NT.

5NT


If Opener opens the bidding ANY number of NT (see the five possibilities above), a transfer followed by a bid of 5NT is asking Opener to pick their 6 level slam. Note that this bid is 100% FORCING!!! Responder will make this bid if they have the values for slam. However Responder does NOT know if the partnership has a major suit fit. This is how they ask while forcing Opener to bid again.

Responder's values will differ for this bid because it totally depends on what range Opener has.

Point count if Opener opens 1NT showing 15 to 17 HCP

Responder would need 18 or more HCP to bid 5NT.

Point count if Opener opens 2NT showing 20 or 21 HCP

Responder would need 13 or more HCP to bid 5NT.

Point count if Opener opens 3NT showing 25 to 27 HCP

Responder would need 8 or more HCP to bid 5NT.

Point count if Opener opens 2♣ followed by 2NT to show a balanced hand with 22 to 24 HCP

Responder would need 11 or more HCP to bid 5NT.

Point count if Opener opens 2♣ followed by 3NT to show a balanced hand with 25 to 27 HCP

Responder would need 8 or more HCP to bid 5NT.

Do you need to memorize all these point counts?


No! That is hard work. Just remember what the each of the different bids ask Partner and memorize how many points you need for a small slam and a grand slam. Then do the math.

4NT -- transferring to your five card major and then bidding 4NT asks Opener to stop below slam with a MINIMUM, bid a slam with a MAXIMUM and also asks whether or not Opener has a fit for Responder's five card major.
5NT -- asks Opener to pick their 6 level slam -- bid Responder's suit IF Opener has a fit and otherwise bid 6NT.

25 or 26 to 33 HCP -- Game only
33 HCP -- Small Slam
37 HCP -- Grand Slam

A) You know how many points Partner (Opener) has -- their opening bid told you. Perfect!
B) You know how many points you have in your hand. Just count them.

Responder should ALWAYS start with transferring Partner to their five card major! Then they can:
C) Do the math to see where you belong if Partner (Opener) has the MINIMUM of their range.
D) Do the math to see where you belong if Partner (Opener) has the MAXIMUM of the range.

If the answer is "I always want to be in a slam!" -- bid 5NT!
If the answer is "I might want to be in a small slam but I might not" -- bid 4NT!

Example 1

Here is my hand:
♠A73
KQ962
Q5
♣Q63

My Partner opens up the bidding 2NT. I know they have 20 or 21 HCP.

I count my HCP. I have 13 HCP.

If Partner has 20 HCP (their minimum), that together with my 13 HCP the partnership has 33 HCP. This is enough to bid a small slam but not enough to bid a grand slam.
If Partner has 21 HCP (their maximum), that together with my 13 HCP the partnership has 34 HCP. This is enough to bid a small slam but not enough to bid a grand slam.

So not matter how many points Partner has I know the contract belongs in a small slam. I have to force to a small slam.

Easy enough. But I do have a five card major. I will be much safer if I can find a major suit fit. How do I find out if we have a fit and also FORCE to a small slam?

First I transfer Partner to my major. I bid 3. Partner is forced to say 3. I have shown them I have at least five . Now I bid 5NT. This forces them to the 6 level. If they have a fit for my major they bid 6. If they do not have a fit for my major they bid 6NT.

Example 2

Here is my hand:
♠973
KQ962
Q5
♣863

My Partner opens up the bidding 3NT. I know they have 25 to 27 HCP.

I count my HCP. I have 7 HCP.

If Partner has 25 HCP (their minimum), that together with my 7 HCP the partnership has 32 HCP. This is enough to be in a game but NOT enough to bid a small slam. We can't quite make the small slam.
If Partner has 27 HCP (their maximum), that together with my 7 HCP the partnership has 34 HCP. This is enough to bid a small slam but not enough to bid a grand slam.

So if Partner is MINIMUM I want be playing in a game only.
However if Partner is MAXIMUM I want be playing in a small slam.

Getting a little complicated now. To make things even more complicated I also have a five card major. I will be much safer if I can find a major suit fit. How do I find out if we have a fit and also INVITE a small slam?

First I transfer to show the five card major and then I bid 4NT. The 4NT bid INVITES a small slam and the transfer showed my five card major.

Step 1: So to start with I transfer Partner to my major. I bid 4. Partner is forced to say 4. I have now shown them I have at least five .

Step 2: Now I bid 4NT. This INVITES them to the 6 level and also shows only a five card major.

What will Partner do?

If they have a fit for my major they bid either 5 (showing a MINIMUM) or 6 (showing a MAXIMUM).

If they do not have a fit for my major they either "Pass" (showing a MINIMUM) or bid 6NT (showing a MAXIMUM).

Suggested Bidding Example 1

North
♠KQJ
AQJ3
J942
♣K7

South
♠A7
KT854
AQ5
♣AJ4

Suggested Bidding:
North South
1NT 2
2 5NT
6 Pass


North has a balanced hand with 15 to 17 HCP. They open the bidding 1NT.

South has 18 HCP and knows the partnership belongs in a small slam. But they have a five card major.

South starts with 2 which shows that they have at least a five card suit.

North is forced to say 2.

South now commits the partnership to a small slam by bidding 5NT. This basically asks North if they have a fit or not.

North does have a fit so bids 6.

South says "Pass", happy they have found their fit.

Suggested Bidding Example 2

North
♠KQJ
AQJ3
KJ42
♣KQ

South
♠75
KT854
AQ5
♣864

Suggested Bidding:
North South
2♣ 2
2NT 3
3 4NT
5 Pass


North has a balanced hand with 22 to 24 HCP. They start by opening the bidding 2♣ to show a strong hand.

South has a nice hand but their suit is not good enough to respond anything but 2.

North bids 2NT to now show a balanced hand with exactly 22 to 24 HCP.

South starts with 3 which shows that they have at least a five card suit.

North is forced to say 3.

South now INVITES the partnership to a small slam by bidding 4NT. This asks North if they have a fit or not and also asks whether or not North is MINIMUM or MAXIMUM.

North does have a fit but is MINIMUM so bids 5.

South says "Pass", trusting that Partner is right. Good thing they did since they are off two Aces!

Want some practice on slam bidding?

First of all you need a Partner. Grab your favourite Partner and ask them to bid with you.

To start with you click on the link to get to the North hands. Click HERE to get the North hands!

Tell your Partner to click on the link to get to the South hands. Click HERE to get the South hands!

North will start the bidding. They can open whatever they want. (Hint: Since these are balanced hand slams North will be opening some number of NTs if they play the same ranges as above.)

Once North bids, South will make a bid.

Back to North to make another bid

Back to South to make another bid

and so on until ONE person says "Pass"

the auction ends and you have arrived in your contract.

If you would like to see the auction I suggest please click HERE.

Enjoy!!!

Please leave a comment if you find the bidding hands useful. I can make more if people are enjoying them.