Thursday, December 31, 2020

Bidding Question

Hi Heidi,

We were N/S and got this hand yesterday:

E/W vulnerable, W is dealer:

North
♠A852
9862
KJ7
♣Q3
West
♠T73
743
8
♣AJT985
East
♠K9
KQJ
Q96532
♣72
South
♠QJ64
AT5
AT4
♣K64

Most other table East opened with 1, but at our table, East passed the first round then came in at the second round with 2:
N E S W
Pass
Pass Pass 1♣ Pass
1 2 ???

Question: What should South bid??

Heidi's Answer


Excellent question! South should PASS.

Don't let the Opponents force you into making bids you do not want to make.

Remember South has NO IDEA that North has a strong hand. North could have only 6 points.

South has no fit for North's major so can't support that.

Bidding 2NT shows a strong hand with 18 or 19 HCP.

Bidding 2♠ is a reverse showing a strong hand.

So South can happily PASS knowing that IF North has a strong hand (10+ HCP) they WILL bid again.

West will "Pass".

What will North do?

What they SHOULD do is DOUBLE.

This is NOT a Penalty Double. This is just a Value Showing Double. North is saying "Hey I have some high cards over here and I don't know what to do!"

South can't mess this up.

If they bid either 2 or 2♠ or 2NT North will "Pass" and they will take eight tricks.

If South Passes the Value Showing Double then East is playing in 2 Doubled.

N/S can take at least 6 tricks and if they defend well will take 7 tricks. That's down 1 or hopefully 2.

If you can get down 2 doubled this is much better than making 2♠.

However I think with the South hand South will probably bid 2NT. They might be worried that their aren't good enough or long enough to sit for a Double.

North will "Pass" 2NT since they are maximum for the values they have shown.

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